最新的MRCPUK Endocrinology and Diabetes (Specialty Certificate Examination) - SEND免費考試真題

A 39-year-old woman with Graves' disease was considered suitable for treatment with radioiodine. She was keen that her thyrotoxicosis should not recur. The plan was to request a 600 MBq dose.
What is the probability of resolution of thyrotoxicosis with this dose?

正確答案: A
A 39-year-old man was admitted with severe burns.
On examination, he was noted to be persistently tachycardic.
Investigations:
serum thyroid-stimulating hormone0.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)
serum free T410.0 pmol/L (10.0-22.0)
serum free T32.5 pmol/L (3.0-7.0)
What is the most appropriate next step in investigation of his thyroid status?

正確答案: B
A 54-year-old woman attended clinic for routine follow-up. She had Cushing's syndrome secondary to ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone syndrome with no primary source identified.
She had declined bilateral adrenalectomy. Routine medication included metyrapone 500 mg three times daily, ketoconazole 200 mg once daily and hydrocortisone 10 mg in the morning and 5 mg in the evening.
Metyrapone inhibits the action of which enzyme in steroidogenesis?

正確答案: D
A 28-year-old Asian woman was seen in the joint diabetes-antenatal clinic at 16 weeks' gestation. She gave a history of gestational diabetes during her previous pregnancy. She had a strong family history of diabetes mellitus. She was fit and well, and had no symptoms other than slight early morning sickness.
According to NICE guidance (NG3, February 2015) for management of pregnancy, what is the most appropriate way to screen for gestational diabetes in this woman?

正確答案: D
A 15-year-old boy with a 10-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus was referred to the adolescent diabetes clinic from the paediatric clinic. Diabetes control had always been satisfactory and his recent haemoglobin A1c concentration was 67 mmol/mol (20-42). He felt generally well, although on a growth chart his weight had fallen steadily from the 50th centile 18 months previously to the 10th centile, and his height had fallen from the 50th centile to the 25th centile. He had stage 4 genital development and stage 4 pubic hair, and testicular volume was 15 mL.
What is the most appropriate investigation?

正確答案: B
A 20-year-old woman with Turner's syndrome had heard that there was a risk of ovarian cancer associated with Turner's syndrome. She asked to undergo a pre-emptive oophorectomy.
For what genotype is oophorectomy most likely to be recommended?

正確答案: E
A 17-year-old Caucasian girl presented with primary amenorrhea.
On examination, her body mass index was 21 kg/m2 (18-25). Her body habitus was normal and she had appropriate breast development. There was no hirsutism or acne.
Investigations:
serum oestradiol<180 pmol/L (200-400) serum testosterone31.7 nmol/L (0.5-3.0) serum follicle-stimulating hormone4.0 U/L (2.5-10.0) serum luteinising hormone6.0 U/L (2.5-10.0)
What is the most likely diagnosis?

正確答案: A
An 18-year-old woman was found to have a blood pressure of 164/102 mmHg at a preemployment medical examination. She gave no family history of hypertension. On enquiry, she said that she had not yet started to menstruate.
On initial clinical examination, she appeared well. She was 1.72 m tall (>90th centile) and had a body mass index of 22 kg/m2 (18-25). There was no evidence of axillary hair, and pubic hair was scanty (Tanner stage 1). Breast development was immature (Tanner stage 1).
Investigations:
serum sodium142 mmol/L (137-144)
serum potassium2.7 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
serum urea4.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.0)
serum creatinine102 umol/L (60-110)
estimated glomerular filtration rate (MDRD)>60 mL/min/1.73 m2 (>60)
plasma renin activity (after 30 min supine)1.0 pmol/mL/h (1.1-2.7)
plasma aldosterone (after 30 min supine)125 pmol/L (135-400)
serum cortisol (09.00 h)190 nmol/L (200-700)
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

正確答案: D
An 18-year-old man was referred with muscle weakness and cramps. His blood pressure was 108/60 mmHg.
Investigations:
serum sodium143 mmol/L (137-144) serum potassium2.4 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) serum bicarbonate32 mmol/L (20-28) serum magnesium0.96 mmol/L (0.75-1.05)
24-h urinary calcium3.6 mmol (2.5-7.5) 24-h urinary magnesium4.2 mmol (2.5-8.0)
plasma renin activity (after 30 min supine)6.4 pmol/mL/h (1.1-2.7) plasma aldosterone (after 30 min supine)680 pmol/L (135-400)
What is the most likely diagnosis?

正確答案: B
A 64-year-old man was referred to the foot clinic. He had tripped over his cat 1 week previously and had complained of an ache in his left foot since then. He had a 12-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He was taking metformin, gliclazide, pioglitazone, bendroflumethiazide, ramipril, simvastatin and aspirin.
On examination, his blood pressure was 154/88 mmHg. Foot examination showed absent vibration perception to his ankle. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses were easily palpable on both feet.
Investigations:
serum urea12.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.0) serum creatinine166 umol/L (60-110) haemoglobin A1c79 mmol/mol (20-42)
urinary albumin:creatinine ratio8.7 mg/mmol (<2.5)
X-ray of left footsee image

What is the most appropriate initial management for this deformity?

正確答案: C

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